[i_am_new_here]

> Rich people are just as likely to steal if they think they can get away with it.

This assumes, that the motivation for stealing is .... the expectation to get away with it.

What if one of the two parties (rich, poor) has another motivation like... hunger... :-)

Would that scew the statistics ?

How and why do people write these idealist but still obviously false claims, like here: "The rich and poor are just equally (likely to steal)" ?