Going by his tweet it sounds like at this point he’s mainly riled up about how Apple is presenting the case in public, rather than whatever settlement they reached in private.
From the tweet, it's not clear if he reached a settlement. You're usually not allowed to talk about settlements, but it likely would have had a non-disparagement clause. His last statement, "Apple has issued a statement that clearly implies there was some negative behavior by me during my time at Apple. That is defamatory and categorically false" is the closest to disparaging, but it's limited claiming defamation.
Maybe they reached a settlement, but Apple released a statement he disagrees with, and the settlement didn't cover future libel? Maybe they couldn't reach a settlement, so both he and Apple are trying to do damage control?
Maybe they reached a settlement, but Apple released a statement he disagrees with, and the settlement didn't cover future libel? Maybe they couldn't reach a settlement, so both he and Apple are trying to do damage control?