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by genericacct 1865 days ago
The fact that ENEL is owned by the employers of the ruling judges is just a coincidence.
4 comments

Are you suggesting that the Italian judiciary is incapable of acting independently and impartially?
The majority of italians rate the independence of courts to be poor, which is among the lowest ratings in the EU [1]

[1] https://ec.europa.eu/info/sites/info/files/justice_scoreboar...

this is because they think the courts are politicized, not because the judiciary takes input from the government. In fact there has been a constant conflict between judges and government for the last 30 years.
Doesn't that mean the judiciary is independent, but biased?
Kinda. The judicial branch is rigorously separated from the other two, but it self-organises in a way that often replicates the ideological groups emerging in regular politics (they have their own little parliament, basically). When the postwar political equilibrium crumbled under the weight of its own corruption and Berlusconi got in power, effectively altering the ideological landscape, the judiciary “class” did not immediately follow, since most of them saw the guy as a dodgy felon (which was technically correct); and things have been a bit hairy ever since.
It's hard to say, certainly some investigations have appeared political, but in US terms there is distrust against "public attorneys" rather than against judges (and Italy permits one to change career between the two).

But what I meant to say is that one political side have complained about judges for 30 years, which has impacted the public opinion.

See the effects Trump has had on institutional trust in the US, and make it last 5 mandates.

It would be good to see objective metrics, like how much conviction depends on wealth, etc
Probably due to Berlusconi and Salvini trying to escape their legal troubles by calling the judges communists.
ENEL has been privatized a long time ago and the Italian government has just a plurality stake.
just a plurality?

wouldn’t a plurality make them the controlling shareholder?

Plurality means largest stake, but that stake is less than 50%.

So it means that they have a lot of say, but they can be overridden if every other shareholder disagrees.

isn’t the controlling shareholder generally the shareholder with the largest portion?
AFAIK controlling shareholder means that the shareholder has more than 50% of the voting power. They or the group they belong to have unilateral control of the company barring some restrictions.

Though looking at this a large but not 50%+ stake can also be "controlling": https://www.upcounsel.com/controlling-shareholder

But controlling looks to more about how much voting power and influence you have rather than how many shares, because remember companies can have different classes of shares.

Just like all judges and prosecutors are employed by the people?
assuming this to be true and of factual, in praxi [thus procedural], significance in this case, then of course Google hasn't done any wrong ?