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by advanced-DnD
1867 days ago
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I'm working in a field where m=1 and hbar as a semiclassical scale is given as order of N (number of bosons or fermions), i.e. I don't do actual real physics... But.... a thought experiment: If a particle experiences time differently dependent to its speed in relative to a frame of reference, i.e. that time experienced is scaled according to its speed. Since speed is definitely not discrete, scaling it with time, even though time in itself is discrete as you claimed, still makes the time experienced for said particle to be continuous, no? Is this not a contradiction? |
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Why is it definite that speed isn't discrete? Distance is discrete in plank length, and time is discrete in plank time.
Speed being distance over time, is one discrete unit over another. Isn't it by definition discrete?
At a macro level we may abstract over it's discreteness, but isn't it necessarily discrete if it's made up of discrete units?