[nl]

What does that even mean? Is there some special law that says "Benford's Law is admissible"? I'm guessing not, and that all it means is that it's a piece of evidence that can be used, similarly to any other statistical evidence.

Wouldn't it be stranger (and actually interesting) if that evidence wasn't admissible?

[loumf]

It probably means that the precedent has been established already -- so future courts are likely to just accept it rather than having to go through a re-hearing of Benford from the very beginning.