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by danity 1881 days ago
The main difference with Microsoft is that Apple does not have a monopoly in phones like Microsoft had with PCs. Apple phones make up only 13% of the phone market.
4 comments

Colloquial definitions of monopoly do not matter when it comes to antitrust laws[1]:

> Courts do not require a literal monopoly before applying rules for single firm conduct; that term is used as shorthand for a firm with significant and durable market power — that is, the long term ability to raise price or exclude competitors. That is how that term is used here: a "monopolist" is a firm with significant and durable market power.

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> Apple phones make up only 13% of the phone market.

iOS has 60% of the market in the US[2].

[1] https://www.ftc.gov/tips-advice/competition-guidance/guide-a...

[2] https://deviceatlas.com/blog/android-v-ios-market-share

Depends on how one defines "monopoly". Back in the late 1990s, one could theoretically install non-Windows OSes like Linux, Unix or even purchase an Apple Mac. But yes, in practice Microsoft commanded the market and abused its market power.

Also it's market-specific. As the other commenter noted, the market share is region-specific and in the EU higher than 13%. In the U.S. it's even higher at ~47% (https://www.statista.com/statistics/236550/percentage-of-us-...).

You could argue that users technically have a choice to switch to Android but due to network effect (e.g. your family/friends all use iOS) and lock-in features like iMessage and Facetime, it's often a false choice.

Every time App/Play store fees are discussed, it devolves into unproductive hair-splitting over the word monopoly. The proper term is captive market.

> Captive markets are markets where the potential consumers face a severely limited number of competitive suppliers; their only choices are to purchase what is available or to make no purchase at all

Apple has at least 30% market share in EU, you're giving the EMEA number.