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by ManBlanket
1877 days ago
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The first, "alternative explanation" the statistician in me wants to mention is perhaps the way influenza data is gathered has changed. "Only people who get tested for influenzalike illnesses—typically about 5 percent of individuals who fall ill—are tallied." If there were a change in the way these tests were administered, for example a blaring medical bias toward another disease, that would present a significant sampling problem. That same statistician also wanted me to mention the simplest and most boring answers are usually closest to the truth. |
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There could be other explanations, such as: a desire to avoid Covid causes people to avoid seeking treatment, so more flu cases self resolve. OR: a fear of Covid causes more people to get tested when they're sick, and some of them may then go for flu testing before they would otherwise after coming back negative for Covid...?
Seems like the simplest answer is just "actions that have reduced the spread of one disease have also reduced the spread of another, that's historically less widespread already."