[chrisseaton]

> It obviously helped the US but already in the early second half of the 19th C America was dominating the industrial revolution, by a wide margin, and had cemented it's place as top GDP (overall and per capita)

If you look it up you can see for yourself that you aren’t saying true things.

http://news.bbc.co.uk/1/hi/uk/7174996.stm

The UK’s GDP per capita was still massively higher than the US’s as late as 1870. It didn’t overtake until 1890.

And the US obviously had a relatively late industrial revolution and adoption of things like railroads because they began in other countries and were imported.