|
|
|
|
|
by vkou
1915 days ago
|
|
If governments don't inherit guilt, why do they occasionally feel the need to apologize and compensate people for past repression? Why do other governments being up old disputes, to justify current antagonism? The UK's recent actions towards Turing were very much not an apology, however. Nearly all repression was the law of the land at the time it was carried out. If the German or Russian, or American government 'forgave' the ethnic groups it's predecessor mistreated, there would be an incredibly justified uproar about it (Because as the transgressor, the government should be the one asking for forgiveness, not giving it. And for two of them, it would not even a direct successor of the government responsible!) |
|