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by kgwgk
1918 days ago
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> I've always learned of Simpson's paradox as relating more to different sample sizes when partitioning data When you look at proportions based on binary outcomes it may be related to imbalanced groups but it's more general than that. In the context discussed here of correlations between continous variables the groups can be of similar size. See for example the chart here: https://towardsdatascience.com/simpsons-paradox-d2f4d8f08d42 |
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I guess this paradox could then be thought of as a special case of Simpson's paradox? Since the out group will exclude people with both traits there should also be a negative correlation there, which disappears in the overall population. But in Berkson's case it seems they're implying the subgroup correlation is spurious whereas with Simpson's it could go either way.