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by cgriswald
1911 days ago
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One-party consent seems far more empowering to me. It lets me record any conversation I'm a party to whether the other party likes it or not. In a two-party consent state, the corporation just has a message that the call may be monitored or recorded and me staying on the line qualifies as 'consent'. I'm not provided with an option to talk without being recorded and for many functions companies won't deal with you except through these specific phone numbers. However, if I tell the company I want to record them, they have very little reason to humor me. In practice, this means I'm almost always being recorded anyway, but I can't generally record them back. It looks to me very much like corporations get one-party consent, and I don't. I've heard it argued that "This call may be monitored or recorded..." can be interpreted as consent, but I'm not sure how that works out in practice, especially since I'd be recording the individual employees (who may have consented to their employer, but haven't to me). |
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I’m pretty sure you’re allowed to record calls if a company plays that message. It’s implicit that if they are notifying you the call is being recorded, that they are also aware and agree to being recorded.