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by nailer
1925 days ago
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There is no colonisation to justify or otherwise, there was a continuous use of the land by Jewish people since this time. The name 'Palestinea' only came about as a punishment by the Romans for Simon bar Kokhba. Not that Wikipedia itself is a good source, but thi has a bunch of references: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Simon_bar_Kokhba > In the aftermath of the war, Hadrian consolidated the older political units of Judaea, Galilee and Samaria into the new province of Syria Palaestina, which is commonly interpreted as an attempt to complete the disassociation with Judaea. |
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If you're denying that colonization even exists it will be difficult to have a discussion based on facts.