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by quiescant_dodo
1934 days ago
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I think you missed the point. Measuring one-way speed of light requires perfectly synchronized clocks. You cannot do this over any distance, as it requires the speed of light to propagate between the clocks. So you must synchronize the clocks when they are together. But then you must move at least one clock, which subjects the clocks to unknown time dilation. We can't even assume that the time dilation from movement X is the same as from movement -X, even to impossibly-precise measurements and controls. The _premise_ of the question about one-way speed of light is un-divorceable from time dilation. If you _assume_ that the time dilation is the exact same, you are also _assuming_ that the amount of time light takes from A-to-B is exactly half of A-to-B-to-A. Einstein himself articulated this problem. He's certainly known for more than "attempting to be a physicist". |
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If the gear or wheel is moving at a known rate, it can define the minimum speed of light passing through it, if the gear goes sufficiently fast and is sufficiently large with a sufficiently small hole.
Einstein was not infallible or all-knowing. His insistence on having two clocks when all that is needed is one time-accurate gear just shows he wasn’t thinking clearly. Einstein was clearly not an idiot.
However the mock physicist ignoring the very solution he presented is an idiot.