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by cuspycode
1932 days ago
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Am I missing something here? To me, Buffett's argument sounds like a reformulation of Sharpe's Theorem[0] from 1991, which states that active investors cannot in aggregate outperform passive investors. This is an easily proved theorem, so what's the catch here? Why would anyone bet against a theorem? [0] https://web.stanford.edu/~wfsharpe/art/active/active.htm |
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