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by monkeypizza 1942 days ago
The comparison was between

    giving 2 doses to one person over 65, and nothing to another other person over 65
    giving one dose each to two 65+ people
We have evidence that total harm prevention under the second case is higher than the first case, and it also makes perfect logical sense, and there are public health officials confirming this.

On the other hand we have tradition, custom, specific tests.

Say vaccines were tested based on administration in a blue room, but weren't tested in a room painted red. Why are you able to assert without tests that the room color is irrelevant, but are asking for proof that giving two people 85% resistance is better than one person with 95%, when all the evidence supports it? What is leading to wanting to strictly adhere to the exact tested procedure? How do you square your disagreement with the public health officials actively investigating this issue in the linked posts?