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by curlypaul924 1948 days ago
> I think this is only because it was contained in China before it reached the world

Is this true? According to the CDC, there were SARS cases reported in Europe and the Americas prior to containment in China. Why was it different this time around?
1 comments
cperciva 1948 days ago
SARS was more lethal and people actually took public health measures seriously.
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lazide 1948 days ago
Additionally, SARS v1 was not contagious until there were visible symptoms - a huge difference from COVID/SARS v2.
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cperciva 1947 days ago
I wouldn't put too much confidence in that. SARS wasn't known to be contagious presymptomatically, but neither was COVID-19 for many months. Levels of presymptomatic transmission similar to COVID-19 are entirely consistent with the evidence we have from SARS.
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lazide 1947 days ago
That seems unlikely, if for no other reason than the way COVID has spread. Do you have any data?

All the data I've seen on SARs and the mechanisms deployed to control it indicate infectivity at or only very, very shortly before clear symptoms or they would not have been able to control it.

COVID is quite clearly infectious before visible symptoms of any kind, and even when visible many times symptoms are pretty mild - where SARs was not - and this matches it's observed spread and difficulty in controlling it.

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