[swixi]

> So how do you explain everything that happened on the wealth inequality front from the 1970s up to the financial crisis of 2009?

Of course there's never a single thing that explains a complex issue, but the root of the current Fed's monetary policy goes back to Greenspan, so the poster's argument could easily be extended to that iteration of the Fed.

Also, the 1980s is when (modern) wealth inequality really started to take off. And it's much worse today.