[BlueTemplar]

I'm interested about this claim :

> This kind of fallacious critique of the notion of objective truth is a particularly pernicious aspect of obscurantist pseudophilosophy in general. Often, it’s due to simple misunderstandings (such as confusing truth with belief or knowledge), but sometimes it’s due rather to wilful obscurity (as in the case of Foucault).

Now, surely if this is a valid claim, it would have been made during Foucault's life ? What did he respond to criticisms like these ?

EDIT : I guess this Foucault/Chomsky debate might answer this question ? I'll have to find time to listen to it... https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=26077760