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by pokot0
1962 days ago
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My understanding is that it does. One example (there's more like the instant deposit): when you buy a stock with money from another sale not yet settled, you are basically using margin (a loan) and thus RH have cash requirements which are a % of the cost of the trade to be settled. If you don't allow that, and only let people trade on a cash basis after the trades have been settled, you effectively have 100% of the money you need to settle the trades you closed. |
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Presumably their lack of trade fees hurts them here.