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by krok
1963 days ago
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It doesn't inflate the supply, because the amount of people who own the share is equal to the number of actual shares, plus the number of people who are short the share. All the people who are short the share have to buy it back in the future. So the additional supply has exactly been matched by additional demand. What you are saying is like saying that lending money to your friend creates inflation by expanding the money supply, because you still have $10 (that he's holding for you), plus he also has $10. In fact, since he knows he owes you $10, he's going to have to cut back on his spending at some point in the future, to pay you back. (Your mileage may vary with actual friends.) |
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The key difference in your estimates of supply is that you include the future repayments of current lending, but ignore future lending. The general assumption in macroecomics is that we don't treat such lending as isolated one-off events, but as a sum of ongoing activity by many people, continuing forever at a stable level unless some event affects it.
Assuming that the principles governing lending don't change, the future repayments are balanced by payouts of new loans at that point of time, and the current payouts (if they are greater than current repayments of past debt, i.e. there's a net increase) are not balanced and thus increase the supply. If at some point the fundamentals change so that the lending decreases or stops then that event would decrease supply back to where it was.
I.e. if you often lend money to your friends so that usually someone or someone else owes you $10, then this lending is not a change and does not affect supply, but if you did not loan money and now you start lending, then that $10 is an increase in money supply.