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by grandmczeb
1971 days ago
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I think you’re misinterpreting the linked statement - they’re saying A can’t lend the same share to both B and C at the same time. If B borrows the share and then sells to C, C has a share with a clean title and can then lend to D. Otherwise there would be two different prices for lent and unlent shares, since you can make interest off one but not the other. I’m not 100% sure this is correct though, someone please let me know if I’m wrong. |
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