[gajotron]

If 140% of the market cap is sold short, it means the longs own 280% of the market cap - that makes no 'sense' either.

[jakelazaroff]

I only have a casual knowledge of this so sorry if these are dumb questions — doesn't it mean the longs own 240% (original 100% + 140% short sold)? Also, isn't it the case that the longs will own >100% if there are any short positions?