|
|
|
|
|
by bko
1974 days ago
|
|
> How is borrowing then selling 140% of the available shares legal? How is that not market manipulation? Why wouldn't someone be allowed to lend out a security they own to someone else? If not allowed, why wouldn't I be allowed to make an agreement where I pay you the difference between a future stock price and some fixed value? > The difference is retail is going to win AND there's no backroom deal to be made to stop the bleeding. The backroom deal will be a phone call to the CEO of reddit, discord, disqus and similar and tell them to cut it out. Simple as that. No coordinating mechanism, this will die. |
|
Can you explain what individual or company can own 140% of available shares?