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by curryhoward
2001 days ago
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You are correct in that there is a definition of idempotence that agrees with you, but you are wrong to correct the parent comment, because the most common mathematical definition of idempotence of functions agrees with them (and not you). There are multiple definitions of idempotence, used even within computer science, and neither of you seem to be aware of the definition used by the other. The common mathematical definition of an idempotent function is that f(f(x)) = f(x) for all x. But in computer science there is another common definition which involves side effects not being repeated (that is, `f(); f();` is the same as `f();`). |
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where have you ever seen that definition ?!