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by mssundaram
2008 days ago
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> Polio was endemic, with low incidence, for thousands of years. Around 1900 it went from endemic to epidemic. Why? Did it suddenly mutate into a deadlier or more transmissable strain? While we don't have polio sequences from before and after 1900 to compare, we do know that rapid improvements in sanitation delayed exposure to the polio virus. Babies were now encountering the virus after maternal antibodies to it had waned! What is the source for this? I've read another explanation: the overuse of pesticides like Paris Green, DDT (see pictures of kids literally sprayed with it on their clothing), and the use of "medical metals" to treat any kinds of diseases - giving mercury, arsenic etc. All of these (pesticides, metals) can weaken the bowels and allow the polio virus (which resides in the bowels) to enter into the spine where it then causes paralysis. Maternal transfer of antibodies is one of my favorite immunity topics - it is far overlooked in usefulness lately, largely seen as impractical due to changes in lifestyle (not many mothers breastfeed) Dear downvoters: what do you find does not contribute to conversation about sharing this theory? |
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