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by contravariant 2000 days ago
The one coherent explanation I can come up with is that they want to fund it by taxing people/companies that evade taxes.

Though that doesn't sound right for the current UK government.

1 comments

That money would normally go into the tax bucket, so it's really still being taxpayer-funded in that case.
Well they're not currently taxpayers at the very least, in contrast to the leaseholders who presumably are mostly taxpayers.
Are you being deliberately obtuse? Money is fungible, money recovered from tax evaders rightly belongs in the general taxation pool, funding X with money recovered from tax evaders is no different from funding X with money from the general taxation pool (unless X somehow enables recovering more money from tax evaders that wouldn't otherwise happens).