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by fennecfoxen 2000 days ago
The UK, for historic reasons, doesn’t believe in private property for the common man; almost all property in the form of land belongs to the government or someone with a legacy from the ruling class of nobility. Thus most homeowners don’t own the land their home is on, they just own a very long term lease from the actual landowner (not sure precisely what is customary these days, but imagine a 99-year lease) with N decades left on it. This is a leasehold.

Owning the land is called a freehold, and the owners are called freeholders instead of leaseholders.

Contrast the US where a lease of a home is typically paid monthly and contracted on a year to year basis.

4 comments

> almost all property in the form of land belongs to the government or someone with a legacy from the ruling class of nobility

In terms of acres the land is owned by descendents of friends of Henry 8th, sure. Majority of houses though aren't leasehold - although many new houses are being sold as leasehold for the last 20 years or so.

Thank you for the clarifications. I never personally got anything beyond a shorthold while in the UK.
> The UK, for historic reasons, doesn’t believe in private property for the common man

On the contrary, the UK is deeply obsessed with house ownership! The key word though is 'house', the Grenfell related scandals have all been about large blocks of flats, where the residents will almost certainly be leaseholders, with the actual building owned by someone else (probably a company)

Pretty sure this is not the case in Scotland (still part of the UK) since some time in the 70s and definitely since 2000. https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Abolition_of_Feudal_Tenure_e...
Anglo law not historically having a concept of personal property...

That's a new one for me.

The US only protects property rights of some. Read up on asset forfeitures in the US. Police can seize cash on you with only "reasonable suspicion" with no conviction required.