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by Dylan16807
2012 days ago
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> Then it would be almost guaranteed that such a finding is spurious. But that's the fallacy. You can't just preemptively assume that there are no real correlations. You definitely want to use a smaller p threshold when you look for more things, but it's quite possible to hit real correlations with a pile of plausible hypotheses. As an example: Let's say just 1/150 of your hypotheses hit a real correlation, and you're inappropriately using a p<.05 test. Tiny signal, huge noise. But even in that pessimistic case, more than 10% of your positives are real. Far from a guarantee. |
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Yes of course. But the trouble is that, if you do this p-hacking expedition, you are guaranteed to find those correlations in pure noise. So if you use a procedure that will find something in noise - you cannot also use it to claim to have found something in your data.
In the words of statistics philosopher Deborah Mayo - "A conjecture passes a test only if a refutation would probably have occurred if it's false". In this case no refutation would have occurred if the correlation is false. Hence - the result is equivalent as if no test has actually been performed.
Or, a more simplistic example, imagine if someone observes an asteroid and says "it might be aliens". Some astro-physicists then describe that all the observed properties of that object behave just as we expect them to behave in the case of an asteroid. But the person might then reply with: "yeah, but it still might have been aliens".
I feel that the same is true for "yeah, but the correlation might still be true".