|
|
|
|
|
by TameAntelope
2021 days ago
|
|
What are your (or anyone's) thoughts on why 1A was written to be limited to the government in the first place? Why didn't the author (James Madison) of the Bill of Rights write it more broadly, preventing even private entities from limiting speech, et. al.? |
|
This mostly changed due to 'corporate personhood', the idea that corporations should have the same rights as people.
This article goes in to a lot of how this has lead to corporate abuses of power:
https://repository.uchastings.edu/hastings_law_journal/vol41...
This one's an easier read, but basically an editorial on the one above:
https://reclaimdemocracy.org/corporate-accountability-histor...