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by BlueTemplar
2029 days ago
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> That's because Tolkien quite possibly did not base Gondor on Arthurian myth and popular conceptions of the Middle Ages, unlike many of the conventional fantasy works that succeeded him. Instead, he may instead have based it upon Rome: But then the video argues the opposite, specifically about vassal fiefdoms ? |
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> But then the video argues the opposite, specifically about vassal fiefdoms ?
I think an assumption of the video is that the popular conceptions of the Middle Ages don't exactly show the vassalage system (and its relationships between vassals and lieges), instead showing kings as a rulers with absolute power.