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by devit 2042 days ago
That doesn't work as written for uncountable sets.
1 comments

That's true, but there's an amusingly odd theorem (downwards Lowenheim-Skolem) that implies that if set theory has a model, it has a countable model. So, in a sense, all sets are countable. I think this just leads you to the next problem, which is that (I think) it would be undecidable normalizing and sorting these sets.