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by smabie 2049 days ago
One should target volatility, not leverage. Without leverage, you can usually only take the most risky of strategies in order to get a return. If you're willing to take on leverage, you are much more likely to find a good strategy.

Source: work at a small prop firm that takes on around 10x leverage. Even at this leverage ratio, we are considerably less risky than the S&P 500. Even at 10x, our volatility is somewhere between 1/2 to 1/3 of the S&P.

If you take on very little directional risk and are doing stat arb like us, there's nothing wrong with taking on a lot of leverage. Even at 10x, we are safer than the vast majority of retail portfolios in existence.

Leverage (through futures, options, shorts, or borrowing) is the cornerstone of almost all active outperformance in the industry. Without leverage, you will be forced into high beta names that trade at a premium compared to their risk adjusted return. See the "low beta anomaly" for more information.

3 comments

And certainly you are well protected against black swan type events, even at 10x leverage...?
Shit happens and even the smartest people can get fucked, just look at the LTCM blow up. So of course it's possible.

It's impossible to eliminate all risk, regardless of the leverage ratio. I'm just saying that leverage isn't a reasonable proxy for risk. You have to dig deeper.

That sounds reasonable at first glance, but it would be really interesting to see a proper study of leveraged investments throughout the modern era, and their tendency to blow up compared to the volatility of what would be the reasonable alternative.
if you have 10x leverage, your insurance against black swan events is to try to go 10x bankrupt.
it really depends on the underlying asset. short dates bond trading involves large leverage because short-term bonds tend to not move much
But increased leverage doesn't mean your risk-adjusted returns are any better.
You can't eat on risk adjusted returns alone! gotta make that chedder

But leverage necessarily decreases your risk adjusted return assuming non zero volatility of the strategy. This is called "volatility drag."

would you recommend any literature more broadly argumenting the ideas you defend here? thanks!