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by cynicalkane
5534 days ago
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I am not a tax lawyer, but my understanding is that capital gains only count as such if you've held the asset for at least a few years. By the way, in the first case, your outlays are tax-deductible. (edit: I'm not an expert, so downvoters, please explain your disagreement.) |
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But in the second case, you're taxed at a lower rate, so the tax code appears to want to discourage you from investing your capital in your own work. If you ever find yourself in a situation where you could make a 10% return on capital by putting that capital to work yourself, or could make the same 10% by putting that capital into a passive investment, the tax code promotes the 2nd option.