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by qwerty456127
2052 days ago
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Not really. That would represent the currently (starting somewhere in the 16th century IIRC) popular pronunciation norm (which isn't even the only existing nor the only "correct" one) but would discard some significant semantic value. Roughly like replacing g with j wherever g sounds ⟨ʤ⟩ in English. |
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If such extreme rules of pronunciation as in English language will be accepted, then all Cyrillic languages can be merged into one written language.