[smnrchrds]

Correct me if I am wrong, but I think US claims jurisdiction over anything that involves a transaction in USD. And because of the way international payment systems are set up, there always is a USD transaction somewhere in the loop.

If a Danish customer takes his Danish Krones to the bank and sends them to a supplier in Germany in the form on Euros, the transaction goes like DKK → USD → EUR, so US claims jurisdiction over it and enforces its domestic laws on it:

https://www.icenews.is/2012/03/04/us-confiscates-policemans-...

And it doesn't even have to be an international transaction. Even domestic ones sometime run afoul of this limitation, as this Canadian small business owner found out:

https://www.cbc.ca/news/canada/toronto/square-canada-1.53031...

[Fumtumi]

Sounds and read more like an very rare case where it is not even clear if this holds up in court.

[smnrchrds]

Not really. This is how US is able to unilaterally impose sanctions on Iran. Since international transactions go through USD, they have effectively cut Iran from being able to transact with the rest of the world on a meaningful scale. European countries tried to build an alternative to circumvent the need for a USD layer, but it has not been successful. USD's unique position in the international stage allows US to impose its domestic policy on a large part of the world. From Washington Post:

> The power of U.S. sanctions lies in the use of the U.S. dollar in most international transactions. A foreign company that sends its proceeds from trade with Iran through an international bank would likely face sanctions because part of it would be conducted in dollars. An international company with an American employee who has something to do with a transaction, no matter how inconsequential, could also run afoul of U.S. sanctions.

https://www.washingtonpost.com/world/national-security/iran-...

[anitil]

I have heard of this exact thing, but can't find the information about it. I think it was a Matt Levine article?.

I'm so hazy on the details, other than that French nationals were prosecuted for alleged crimes in France because those crimes were denominated in US currency.

Edit: My memory must be wrong - there's a comment below that France will not extradite citizens