[noncoml]

Does it matter? I mean it’s still close enough for such a prediction so long back.

What I am saying is that, like with the “atoms”, the intuition was there. They just didn’t have the means to prove stuff

[hhas01]

People predicted lots of things. You can’t look back and say “oh, they predicted X right” while conveniently ignoring all the other ways they predicted it wrong.

See also: Post hoc ergo propter hoc and Texas sharpshooter fallacies.

[noncoml]

Why can't the same argument be hold for Pre-Socratic philosophers and the "atom"?