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by jbay808
2087 days ago
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> (i.e. if you subscribe to the many-worlds theory then bogosort is always O(1) for at least one universe - you just need to discard the incorrect universes) Does this same line of thinking conclude that P=NP in at least one universe, too? You can use a radioactive decay counter to generate quantum random numbers, interpret them as a answer to an NP problem, and then verify the solution in polynomial time the normal way? In at least one universe, that will always work on the first try. |
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That wouldn’t actually make P = NP, because P is defined mathematically from first principles rather than being based on the rules of the universe. However, it would shift the class of practically computable problems from being ‘like P’ (but with limits on the runtime and memory usage achievable), to being ‘like P^NP’, P with an NP oracle, which is surprisingly a different complexity class from NP. At least, that’s what I gather based on Wikipedia and Stack Overflow [1]; I’m not an expert on the subject so I could be mistaken.
[1] https://cs.stackexchange.com/questions/2712/does-npnp-np