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by ryandrake 2085 days ago
I wonder if it would be considered "bad" if one of the jobs didn't produce IP (code) and the other one did. Or if both didn't produce IP. Or if the companies were not direct competitors.

If I had some "marketing manager" title at Facebook, why couldn't I also do the same work at Chase Bank or some other non-competitor, if both were willing to hire me on a WFH basis? What ethical line does that really cross?

1 comments

It's an interesting consideration. This would be a great time for any lawyer to chime in.

Personally I'd think it a matter of taste or etiquette. If I were a full time employee (FTE) at one company, working for another company would personally be a bit of a betrayal of my first employer.