| >He seems to have a definition of "in private" which essentially renders his statement tautological. Of course the law can never punish anyone for a crime that isn't detected Interesting change of rhetoric after being called out, since you formulated the bizarre question "where sodomy is allowed when it occurs in private?", before having the epiphany that "Of course the law can never punish anyone for a crime that isn't detected" > But by that definition murder and rape are "legal" everywhere in the world, as long as they occur "in private." You are really going out on a limb to make nonsensical statements. The law has quite naturally limits, one of them being: the inability to judge events that it can't detect or reach. “Covenants, without the sword, are but words and of no strength to secure a man at all.” ― Thomas Hobbes, Leviathan
Law needs to be enforced by humans, who can only do so if they can perceive that event. >Under that notion of privacy there has never been a time in history where sodomy or any other sexual act was forbidden. Same point, limits of law. > IMO this is not a useful way of thinking about legality or oppression. What some consider 'oppression' today was the norm globally.
The problem is moral realism/anti-realism, since you can't prove your moral value judgments with science they will remain subjective and thus naturally be opposed. |
Or it's illegal, and it will be punished if discovered.
If the claim is that sodomy in private is legal, there's a simple test: What happens if (government or private) surveillance catches evidence of it, a third-party steals and publishes private letters discussing it, ...?