> The criminal representation rate now is generally said to be somewhere between 30-50%.
Last I checked, in the US, every person is entitled to representation. You want to argue that a country without a separate independent judiciary is capable of producing fairer outcomes for individuals without political collusion?
Last I checked, in the US, every person is entitled to representation. You want to argue that a country without a separate independent judiciary is capable of producing fairer outcomes for individuals without political collusion?