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by mytailorisrich
2110 days ago
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> If there is no contract (Ea a purchase request/ intend) than anything a company Can send to a consumer is a gift. I understand that there are restrictions to unsolicited goods, perhaps even a ban. But an absence of contract does not make something a gift. Whether something is a gift or an offer to purchase or anything else depends on the facts, it's not implied. So either there is a statute that says this case is legally treated as a gift or the item remain the property of the sender until the intention is clear. Edit: There is indeed a law that makes it a gift (from EU Directive you mention, perhaps). See my previous comment above. This is indeed required because as explained it cannot be implied. |
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The thing that makes it a gift, is that A gift is the only allowed legal transformation that can happen. (Ownerships transfer is a transition in the legal sense). Ea. A company is required to always act lawfully and the only action open for unsolicited (=anything without a predefined base) package is to gift it.
A contract (=agreement to do something in exchange for something else, usually in paper but can be in any form even verbally) is needed before any transformation besides gifting.
This legal sense does not mean it’s still proper to send the package back if the company contacts you and pays for the shipping, but that’s not in law.
The detective I remember reading about during my ‘middle school’ studies (around 1998). I could be mistaken In it and if I am feel free to tell me. All I remember was that the directive made it so that all in the commons market must implement similar protections for Consumers regarding unsolicited mail and package by companies, not in small part to stop the extortion type of sale practice of the “free sample with overpriced subscription” (it’s why they switched to you having to request the sample)