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by nodamage
2129 days ago
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Both are relevant, because in order to successfully win an antitrust tying claim under US law you need to prove the seller had sufficient market power in a tying product in order to coerce buyers into buying the tied product. In this case, once you buy an iPhone, you're forced to use Apple's system to make in-app purchases. The tying product is the phone, and the tied product is the in-app purchase. So you need to show that Apple has sufficient market power in the smartphone market, and that is where the question of the ability to control prices of phones comes in. |
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(Neither does Apple v. Pepper.)