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by gizmo686 2128 days ago
There is a clear assymetry between the temporal dimension and the spatial dimension; but it is not clear to me that this implies a seperation.

We can distances with ds^2 < 0 timelike, and ds^2 > 0 spacelike. We say that events with a spacelike cannot influence each other; but there is nothing in relativity that requires that (unless you introduce causality as an additional assumption, which we generally do).

This gets more messy in general relativity when you allow for large masses (read. Black holes).

In the case of a non spining black hole, we spacetime is described by the Schwarzschild metric. Expressing this metric in spherical cordinates, you find that when you pass the event horizon the sign of dt^2 and dr^2 flip, where r is distance from the singularity. This means a "timelike" seperation means that events are closer to each other in the time dimension; and events with a "spacelike" seperation are farther from each other in time. That is to say, "time" behaves in the way we think of as "space", and "space" behaves the way we think of as "time".