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by helaoban
2124 days ago
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An almost meaningless number when not controlled for age, ethnicity, general health etc. I don't understand how this number can be reasonably used to say anything about basically anything. From the document you site: > Many such serological surveys are currently being
> undertaken worldwide [10], and some have thus far
> suggested substantial under-ascertainment of cases, with estimates of IFR converging at approximately 0.5 - 1% [10-12].
But if we follow reference 12, we get the following IFR study from Stockholm[1]: > Results:
> Age 0–69 Population %: 88.3, IFR: 0.09%
> Age 70+, Population %: 11.7, IFR: 4.29%
Now, which number applies to the vast majority of us? And this is not even controlled for anything but age.People, come on. 1. https://www.folkhalsomyndigheten.se/contentassets/53c0dc391b... |
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The data you cite has a large age group as well (0-69), which has the same problem you describe. See the comment by user kmm below for a reference with a better breakdown of estimated IFR by age groups. The reference also shows how the IFR increases exponentially by age.
If you want to see what number applies to you in particular, then you need an specific breakdown. But if you need to see what is the risk for the population in general, then the estimated total IFR, sampled from that same population, is valuable. Think of individual risk vs systemic risk.