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by vijayr02
2134 days ago
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IANAL but I don't think that's the test. If a person commits to not doing something as part of a valid contract that's all that matters. The point you make may be relevant for deciding damages, but even here there is a concept of Liquidated Damages [0] which is essentially the damages amount set at day 1 so the question of ascertaining the extent of wrong does not arise. [0] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Liquidated_damages |
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A contract is a matter for civil law. Breaking a term of a contract doesn't automatically mean that a court will consider a remedy.
See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Standing_(law)#Standing_requir...: in the US, "the plaintiff must have suffered or imminently will suffer injury".