|
|
|
|
|
by dvt
2140 days ago
|
|
> I'm not sure this is equivalent to Gödel's theorem. It is. In fact, I've seen it proven this way several times (mostly in CS-y papers), but it's definitely not common. My post is in fact based (almost beat-by-beat) on this UC Davis lecture: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=9JeIG_CsgvI |
|
P.S.
I did some random googling, and while I'm not sure, all this story seems to be based off of Paul Finsler's work, which he himself thought to be the priority for an incompleteness theorem (Collected Works Vol. IV., p. 9), but didn't seem so to Gödel (and, seemingly, the majority of those who had to say something about it).
If this indeed is the same thing, it would explain to me why this "proof", which doesn't seem to me like a proof at all is so widespread. But, again, I'm not sure I'm reading into it correctly, and operating under assumption that if somebody could provide something more weighty than "it is" statement, I could be persuaded otherwise.