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by rbecker
2140 days ago
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> What such a comparison would prove? Prove? No, what can be learned. If you want to fix healthcare, you look at countries with working healthcare systems and see what you can copy. Same here. And there's plenty of countries with black populations even outside Africa - the France and South Africa you mentioned, then there's also the UK, Sweden, half a million in Germany, a million in Spain, Jamaica, and I'm going to guess a large number of South American. 1.4 million in Mexico, 300 thousand in India (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Siddi), and I'm sure I missed plenty. It's the height of US exceptionalist hubris to think nothing can be learned from all these countries. |
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Still haven't found data for France, probably have to look for it in French.
For UK, my suspicion is that type of employment for Bangladeshi/Pakistani/Chinese workers is higher vs lower paying jobs.
This probably does not quite fit the employment structure for blacks in the USA at all. But if it does, the question is then: why blacks are denied access to well paying professional jobs?
In British case, the racial differences are mostly caused due to first generation immigrant biases, such as language barrier or cultural fit. (Esp. see salaries of older Indian descent.) This should not matter for USA. If it does, then why is US black culture, extant for many generations, being biased against?