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by thu2111
2156 days ago
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The inability to use data is maddening. Excess deaths is not the same thing as "deaths caused by COVID". This conflation relies on the assumption that you can virtually empty hospitals out and have no effect on mortality at all, which is absurd. What are all those surgeons doing, exactly? If COVID is so deadly, why do some countries show no difference in excess deaths vs previous years? |
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I know that excess deaths aren't the same as deaths caused by COVID. The idea that you can lockdown in week 13 and have 12,000 excess deaths per week 3 weeks later because hospitals were "virtually empty" also seems absurd. Emergency healthcare remained available and the messaging was that people should still go to hospital if they were ill. I do expect deaths because routine healthcare was limited during lockdown, including people who died during the period of lockdown because they couldn't get hospital treatment (https://www.theguardian.com/society/2020/may/08/more-people-...), but without further evidence, I'd be sceptical that this was the dominant effect.
I'm not sure what you're claiming here: are you saying that deaths because people couldn't access healthcare are almost entirely the cause of the UK's excess death peak? What is your evidence for that claim?
> If COVID is so deadly, why do some countries show no difference in excess deaths vs previous years?
https://www.economist.com/graphic-detail/2020/07/15/tracking... has Germany's recorded COVID-19 deaths and excess deaths as 8,538 and 7,549 respectively, and Switzerland's at 1,668 and 1,567. Your question seems to boil down to "why did some countries do so much better at containing the epidemic than others?" I don't know, although Germany and Switzerland seem better organised than the UK so that might have something to do with it.