[ikRwS3Nb6Y]

Apologies in advance for the snark, but I find this statement equally valid:

> You write as if there is a division of work between the couple. That would be true if men and women could decide who would stay at home and who would work at a company. In fact, men are required by their society to go to work, so this is in fact a relation of oppression.

So I reject your assertion that this is a relation of oppression, unless you are conceding that both members of the relation are equally oppressed (in which case, I would argue that nobody is).

[jgwil2]

This inversion is a bit misleading: being able to work is how people achieve financial independence, and if society discourages women from seeking financial independence the result is obviously an imbalance of power between men and women.