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by wsowens
2164 days ago
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For the example of H(X) where X ~ Geom(p), shouldn't the second term be multiplied by (k-1) after breaking up the logarithm? That is, shouldn't pq^(k-1)log(q)
be (k-1)pq^(k-1)log(q)
Apologies if I'm off base here, I'm pretty rusty on infinite series.Great piece, this is really making this concept more intuitive for me. |
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